Matthew 12:40 Using Common Idiomatic Language?
Posted: Thu Oct 13, 2016 5:28 pm
Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is discussed with 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection folks, some of them say that it is using common Jewish idiomatic language to explain the missing night time. I wonder if anyone knows of examples that forecast a daytime or a night time being involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have taken place? If the verse is using common idiomatic language, there ought to be examples of that usage in order to be able to say that it was common.