Hello BeckyHeart21888
God bless you this day.
Good observation, BeckyHeart. I'm not sure why those that published the New King James version of The Bible exchanged the word "Son" (in the KJV) for the word "Servant" (in the NKJV) in verse Acts 3:26. But, obviously, your question got many of us thinking.
Yeah!!!
I, personally, prefer the King James Version, but, I also know that God manifested Himself in the flesh of man to be an example to us, in the form of a Servant, even to the point of being made a little lower than the angels. However, Jesus Christ (The Word) is God's only begotten Son and is God in the flesh. \o/ \o/ \o/
Below, are portions of scripture which I believe will contribute to the discussion:
Philippians 2:5-11King James Version (KJV)
5 Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.
9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:
10 That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;
11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.
and also...
Mark 10:45King James Version (KJV)
45 For even the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for many.
Thank you, BeckyHeart, for your question.
God bless and keep you.
In Christ Jesus' love,
Sister Mack